400-101 Guide

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  • Cisco
  • Exam Number/Code 400-101
  • Product Name CCIE Routing and Switching (v5.0)
  • Questions and Answers
  • 911 Q&As
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Q391. Refer to the exhibit. 

R1 is able to reach only some of the subnets that R2 is advertising. Which two configuration changes can you make to ensure that R1 can reach all routes from R2? (Choose two.) 

A. Add an additional permit statement to the LOOPBACKS route map. 

B. Modify the LOOPBACKS access list to include all loopback subnets. 

C. Add an additional statement in the LOOPBACKS route map to match both Level 1 and Level 2 circuits. 

D. Add an additional statement in the LOOPBACKS route map to match the R1 CLNS address. 

E. Configure the interfaces between R1 and R2 with a Level 1 IS-IS circuit. 

F. Configure the interfaces between R1 and R2 with a Level 2 IS-IS circuit. 

Answer: A,B 

Explanation: 

In this example, the access list is using a 0.0.3.255 wildcard mask, so only the loopback IP’s of 172.16.0.0 – 172.16.3.255 will be included. We need to add another statement to allow loopback 4 to be advertised, or modify the wildcard mask to include them all. 


Q392. Which three statements describe the characteristics of a VPLS architecture? (Choose three.) 

A. It forwards Ethernet frames. 

B. It maps MAC address destinations to IP next hops. 

C. It supports MAC address aging. 

D. It replicates broadcast and multicast frames to multiple ports. 

E. It conveys MAC address reachability information in a separate control protocol. 

F. It can suppress the flooding of traffic. 

Answer: A,C,D 

Explanation: 

As a VPLS forwards Ethernet frames at Layer 2, the operation of VPLS is exactly the same as that found within IEEE 802.1 bridges in that VPLS will self learn source MAC address to port associations, and frames are forwarded based upon the destination MAC address. Like other 802.1 bridges, MAC address aging is supported. 

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/products/hw/routers/ps368/products_white_paper09186a0080 1f6084.shtml 


Q393. What is a reason to use DHCPv6 on a network that uses SLAAC? 

A. To get a record of the IPs that are used by the clients 

B. To push DNS and other information to the clients 

C. No reason, because there is no need for DHCPv6 when using SLAAC 

D. Because DHCPv6 can be used only in stateful mode with SLAAC to record the IPs of the clients 

E. Because DHCPv6 can be used only in stateless mode with SLAAC to record the IPs of the clients 

F. Because DHCPv6 is required to use first-hop security features on the switches 

Answer:

Explanation: 

SLAAC is by far the easiest way to configure IPv6 addresses, simply because you don’t have to configure any IPv6 address. With SLAAC, a host uses the IPv6 Neighbor Discovery Protocol (NDP) to determine its IP address and default routers. Using SLAAC, a host requests and listens for Router Advertisements (RA) messages, and then taking the prefix that is advertised to form a unique address that can be used on the network. For this to work, the prefix that is advertised must advertise a prefix length of 64 bits (i.e., /64). But the most significant of Stateless Address Autoconfiguration (SLAAC) is it provided no mechanism for configuring DNS resolver information.Therefore SLACC can be used along with DHCPv6 (Stateless) to push DNS and other information to the clients. 


Q394. Which three statements about GLBP are true? (Choose three.) 

A. It uses a virtual MAC address that starts with 0007.b4. 

B. It elects a single active virtual gateway to appoint and manage multiple active virtual forwarders. 

C. It allows the configured virtual IP address to be used on a physical interface as well. 

D. It uses a virtual MAC address that starts with 0070.4b. 

E. It elects multiple active virtual gateways to appoint and manage a single active virtual forwarder. 

F. Preemption is enabled for the configured active virtual gateway by default. 

Answer: A,B,C 

Explanation: 

The virtual MAC address in GLBP is 0007.b400.xxyy where xx is the GLBP group number and yy is the different number of each gateway (01, 02, 03…). One of the routers in a GLBP group is elected as an AVG – Active Virtual Gateway. There is only one active AVG in a group, and its task is to respond to ARP requests sent to the virtual gateway IP address replying different virtual MAC addresses in response packets. GLBP allows the configured virtual IP address to be used on a physical interface. By default, the GLBP gateway preemptive scheme is disabled. A backup virtual gateway can become the AVG only if the current AVG fails, regardless of the priorities assigned to the virtual gateways. 


Q395. Which three statements are true about VSS? (Choose three.) 

A. VSS separates the control planes of the active and the standby chassis. 

B. Configuration changes can be made on both active and standby chassis. 

C. When the VSS active chassis recovers after a failure, it initiates a switchover and takes on the active role again. 

D. VSS unifies the control planes of the active and the standby chassis. 

E. HSRP configuration is not required to run VSS. 

F. The VSS standby chassis monitors the VSS active chassis using the VSL. 

Answer: D,E,F 

Explanation: 

VSS operates on a unified control plane with a distributed forwarding architecture in which the active supervisor (or switch) is responsible for actively participating with the rest of the network and for managing and maintaining control plane information. VSS actually removes the need for a next-hop redundancy protocol like HSRP or VRRP. These first-hop redundancy protocols are usually heavily tied to a fast-converging routing protocol like EIGRP, and still require that each device maintain its own control plane. The standby chassis monitors the active chassis using the VSL. If it detects failure, the standby chassis initiates a switchover and takes on the active role. When the failed chassis recovers, it takes on the standby role. 

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/lan/catalyst6500/ios/15-1SY/config_guide/sup2T/15_1_sy_swcg_2T/virtual_switching_systems.pdf 


Q396. Which option is the Cisco recommended method to secure access to the console port? 

A. Configure the activation-character command. 

B. Configure a very short timeout (less than 100 milliseconds) for the port. 

C. Set the privilege level to a value less than 15.

D. Configure an ACL. 

Answer:

Explanation: 

The activation-character command defines a session activation character. Entering this character at a vacant terminal begins a terminal session. The default activation character is the Return key 

To secure the console port, you should change this character to a different one as most people simply hit the enter key when trying to access the console. 


Q397. Which two options are valid for the number of bytes in a BGP AS number? (Choose two.) 

A. 2 bytes 

B. 4 bytes 

C. 6 bytes 

D. 8 bytes 

E. 16 bytes 

Answer: A,B 

Explanation: 

During the early time of BGP development and standardization, it was assumed that availability of a 16 bit binary number to identify the Autonomous System (AS) within BGP would have been more than sufficient. The 16 bit AS number, also known as the 2-byte AS number, provides a pool of 65536 unique Autonomous System numbers. The IANA manages the available BGP Autonomous System Numbers (ASN) pool, with the assignments being carried out by the Regional Registries. The current consumption rate of the publicly available AS numbers suggests that the entire public 2-byte ASN pool will be fully depleted. A solution to this depletion is the expansion of the existing 2-byte AS number to a 4-byte AS number, which provides a theoretical 4,294,967,296 unique AS numbers. ARIN has made the following policy changes in conjunction with the adoption of the solution. The Cisco IOS BGP "4-byte ASN" feature allows BGP to carry a Autonomous System Number (ASN) encoded as a 4-byte entity. The addition of this feature allows an operator to use an expanded 4-byte AS number granted by IANA. 


Q398. Which three statements about SPAN traffic monitoring are true? (Choose three.) 

A. Traffic from a non-source VLAN is discarded when it arrives on a source VLAN. 

B. Multiple sessions can send traffic to an individual destination port. 

C. It supports up to 32 SPAN ports per switch. 

D. The destination port acts as a normal switchport. 

E. It supports up to 64 SPAN ports per switch. 

F. Only one session can send traffic to an individual destination port. 

Answer: A,E,F 

Explanation: 

You can create up to a total of 64 SPAN and ERSPAN sessions to define sources and destinations on the local device.You can also create a SPAN session to monitor multiple VLAN sources and choose only VLANs of interest to transmit on multiple destination ports. 

For example, you can configure SPAN on a trunk port and monitor traffic from different VLANs on different destination ports. 

You can configure a particular destination port in only one SPAN session. 

Traffic from a non-source VLAN is discarded when it arrives on a source VLAN. 

Reference: 

http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/nexus1000/sw/4_0/troubleshooti 

ng/configuration/guide/n1000v_troubleshooting/trouble_15span.html 


Q399. Which switching technology can be used to solve reliability problems in a switched network? 

A. fragment-free mode 

B. cut-through mode 

C. check mode 

D. store-and-forward mode 

Answer:

Explanation: 

Characteristics of Store-and-Forward Ethernet Switching 

This section provides an overview of the functions and features of store-and-forward Ethernet switches. 

Error Checking 

Figure 1 shows a store-and-forward switch receiving an Ethernet frame in its entirety. At the end of that frame, the switch will compare the last field of the datagram against its own frame-check-sequence (FCS) calculations, to help ensure that the packet is free of physical and data-link errors. The switch then performs the forwarding process. Whereas a store-and-forward switch solves reliability issues by dropping invalid packets, cut-through devices forward them because they do not get a chance to evaluate the FCS before transmitting the packet. 

Figure 1. Ethernet Frame Entering a Store-and-Forward Bridge or Switch (from Left to Right) 

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/switches/nexus-5020-switch/white_paper_c11-465436.html 


Q400. Which two tunneling techniques determine the IPv4 destination address on a per-packet basis? (Choose two.) 

A. 6to4 tunneling 

B. ISATAP tunneling 

C. manual tunneling 

D. GRE tunneling 

Answer: A,B 

Explanation: Tunnel Configuration Parameters by Tunneling Type 

Tunneling Type 

Tunnel Configuration Parameter 

Tunnel Mode 

Tunnel Source 

Tunnel Destination 

Interface Prefix or Address 

Manual 

ipv6ip 

An IPv4 address, or a reference to an interface on which IPv4 is configured. 

An IPv4 address. 

An IPv6 address. 

GRE/IPv4 

gre ip 

An IPv4 address. 

An IPv6 address. 

IPv4-compatible 

ipv6ip auto-tunnel 

Not required. These are all point-to-multipoint tunneling types. The IPv4 destination address is calculated, on a per-packet basis, from the IPv6 destination. 

Not required. The interface address is generated as ::tunnel-source/96. 

6to4 

ipv6ip 6to4 

An IPv6 address. The prefix must embed the tunnel source IPv4 address 

ISATAP 

ipv6ip isatap 

An IPv6 prefix in modified eui-64 format. The IPv6 address is generated from the prefix and the tunnel source IPv4 address. 

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios/ipv6/configuration/guide/12_4t/ipv6_12_4t_book/i p6-tunnel.html 


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