400-101 Guide

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  • Cisco
  • Exam Number/Code 400-101
  • Product Name CCIE Routing and Switching (v5.0)
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A Complete Guide to exam 400 101

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Q11. Which two options are causes of out-of-order packets? (Choose two.) 

A. a routing loop 

B. a router in the packet flow path that is intermittently dropping packets 

C. high latency 

D. packets in a flow traversing multiple paths through the network 

E. some packets in a flow being process-switched and others being interrupt-switched on a transit router 

Answer: D,E 

Explanation: 

In traditional packet forwarding systems, using different paths have varying latencies that cause out of order packets, eventually resulting in far lower performance for the network application. Also, if some packets are process switched quickly by the routing engine of the router while others are interrupt switched (which takes more time) then it could result in out of order packets. The other options would cause packet drops or latency, but not out of order packets. 


Q12. Which regular expression will match prefixes that originated from AS200? 

A. ^$ 

B. ^200_ 

C. _200$ D. ^200) 

E. _200_ 

Answer:

Explanation: 

Example on how to deny all prefixes originated in Autonomous System 200 

router bgp 100 

neighbor 10.1.1.1 remote-as 65535 

neighbor 10.1.1.1 route-map map1 in 

route-map map1 permit 10 

match as-path 1 

ip as-path access-list 5 deny _200$ 

ip as-path access-list 5 permit .* 

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios/termserv/configuration/guide/12_4t/tsv_12_4t_bo ok/tsv_reg_express.html 


Q13. Which statement about the EIGRP RTO is true? 

A. It is six times the SRTT. 

B. It is the time that it normally takes for an update to be received by a peer. 

C. It is the time that it normally takes to receive a reply to a query. 

D. It is the average time that it takes for a reliable packet to be acknowledged. 

Answer:

Explanation: 

The RTO is typically six times the SRTT, the value may vary from a minimum of 200 microseconds (ms) to a maximum of 5 seconds (s). 

Reference: EIGRP for IP: Basic Operation and Configuration, Alvaro Retana, Russ White, Don Slice - 2000 


Q14. Refer to the exhibit. 

Which two statements about this configuration are true? (Choose two.) 

A. Pings from SW2 to SW1 fail because SW1 is pruning VLAN 10. 

B. VLANs 10 and 200 are added to the SW2 allowed list on interface fa0/22. 

C. Pings from SW2 to SW1 are successful. 

D. Only VLAN 200 is added to the SW1 allowed list on interface fa0/22. 

Answer: B,C 


Q15. DRAG DROP 

Drag and drop the MPLS term on the left to the function it performs on the right. 

Answer: 


Q16. A service provider is deploying L2VPN LAN services in its MPLS cloud. Which statement is true regarding LDP signaling and autodiscovery? 

A. LDP signaling requires that each PE is identified, and that an LDP session is active with its P neighbor for autodiscovery to take place. 

B. LDP signaling requires that each P is identified, and that a targeted LDP session is active for autodiscovery to take place. 

C. LDP signaling requires that each PE is identified, and that a targeted LDP session with a BGP route reflector is active for autodiscovery to take place. 

D. LDP signaling requires that each PE is identified, and that a targeted LDP session is active for autodiscovery to take place. 

Answer:

Explanation: 

LDP signaling requires that each PE is identified and a targeted LDP session is active for autodiscovery to take place. Although the configuration can be automated using NMS/OSS the overall scalability of the solution is poor as a PE must be associated with all other PEs for LDP discovery to work, which can lead to a large number of targeted LDP sessions (n2), which may be largely unused as not all VPLS will be associated with every PE. The security attributes of LDP are reasonably good, although additional configuration is required to prevent unauthorized sessions being set up. Although LDP can signal additional attributes, it requires additional configuration either from an NMS/OSS or static configuration. 

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/products/hw/routers/ps368/products_white_paper09186a0080 1f6084.shtml 


Q17. What is the most common use for route tagging in EIGRP? 

A. to determine the route source for management purposes 

B. to change the metric of a prefix 

C. to filter routes in order to prevent routing loops 

D. to modify path selection for certain classes of traffic 

Answer:


Q18. When BGP route reflectors are used, which attribute ensures that a routing loop is not created? 

A. weight 

B. local preference 

C. multiexit discriminator 

D. originator ID 

Answer:

Explanation: 

As the iBGP learned routes are reflected, routing information may loop. The route reflector model has the following mechanisms to avoid routing loops: 

. Originator ID is an optional, nontransitive BGP attribute. It is a 4-byte attributed created by a route reflector. The attribute carries the router ID of the originator of the route in the local autonomous system. Therefore, if a misconfiguration causes routing information to come back to the originator, the information is ignored. 

. Cluster-list is an optional, nontransitive BGP attribute. It is a sequence of cluster IDs that the route has passed. When a route reflector reflects a route from its clients to nonclient peers, and vice versa, it appends the local cluster ID to the cluster-list. If the cluster-list is empty, a new cluster-list is created. Using this attribute, a route reflector can identify if routing information is looped back to the same cluster due to misconfiguration. If the local cluster ID is found in the cluster-list, the advertisement is ignored. 

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios/12_2/ip/configuration/guide/fipr_c/1cfbgp.html 


Q19. Which three options are three benefits of an MPLS VPN? (Choose three.) 

A. It allows IP address space overlap by maintaining customer routes in a private routing table. 

B. It offers additional security by preventing intrusions directly into the customer routing table. 

C. It offers a transparent virtual network in which all customer sites appear on one LAN. 

D. It offers additional security by allowing only dynamic routing protocols between CE and PE routers. 

E. It allows IP address space overlap by maintaining customer routes in the global routing table with unique BGP communities. 

F. Providers can send only a default route for Internet access into the customer VPN. 

Answer: A,B,C 


Q20. Which two statements about SNMP traps are true? (Choose two.) 

A. They are sent by an agent after a specified event. 

B. They are sent when solicited after a specified event. 

C. They are equivalent to a community string. 

D. They provide solicited data to the manager. 

E. They are sent by a management station to an agent. 

F. Vendor-specific traps can be configured. 

Answer: A,F 

Explanation: 

The SNMP agent contains MIB variables whose values the SNMP manager can request or change. A manager can get a value from an agent or store a value into the agent. The agent gathers data from the MIB, the repository for information about device parameters and network data. The agent can also respond to a manager's requests to get or set data. An agent can send unsolicited traps to the manager. Traps are messages alerting the SNMP manager to a condition on the network. Traps can mean improper user authentication, restarts, link status (up or down), MAC address tracking, closing of a TCP connection, loss of connection to a neighbor, or other significant events. 

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/lan/catalyst2960/software/release/12-2_55_se/configuration/guide/scg_2960/swsnmp.html 


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