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Q13. What is a major difference between Unidirectional Link Detection (UDLD. and Bidirectional Forwarding Detection (BFD.?
A. UDLD operates at Layer 3 and detects the failure of the Layer 3 connectivity between two routers. BFD operates at Layer 3 and detects forwarding path failures over multiple
Layer 2 hops between two routers.
B. UDLD operates at Layer 2 and detects failure of physical links. BFD operates at Layer 3 and detects failure of forwarding paths, which may transit multiple Layer2 hops, between two routers.
C. UDLD operates at Layer 2 and detects failure of physical links BFD operates at Layer 2 and detects failure of a direct link between two routers or switches.
D. UDLD operates at Layer 3 and detects failure of physical links between adjacent routers. BFD operates at Layer 3 and detects failure of a forwarding path, which may transit multiple Layer 2 hops , between two routers.
Q14. Refer to exhibit.
If a DHCP server has generated the given debug output, which two statements about the network environment are true?
A. Client 0050.4332 has been assigned an IP address on the 10.10.2.0/24 subnet
B. The DHCP server received a DHCPREQUEST from a client whose ID ends in 4574.302f.30
C. The DHCP pool for the 10.10.2.0/24 subnet is configured incorrectly
D. The DHCP server receives discover messages through a relay agent
E. The DHCP server assigned PC2 an address from the 10.10.3.0/24 subnet
Q15. ipv6 nd raguard policy TST-RAGUARD device-role host
switchport access vlan 100
ipv6 nd raguard attach-policy TST-RAGUARD
Refer to the exhibit. What is the effect of the given configuration?
A. The port rejects inbound router advertisements and router redirect messages
B. The port allows and inspects inbound NDP messages
C. The port blocks inbound tunneled Ipv6 traffic
D. If the Ipv6 RA Guard feature is enabled on VLAN 100, it takes precedence over port- level policy
E. The Ipv6 RA Guard feature is disabled on VLAN 100
Q16. What are three of the key fields that define a unique NetFlow flow?(3)
A. Layer 3 protocol type
B. Type of service
C. Source MAC address
D. Canonical Format identifier
E. Input logical interface
F. Cyclic Redundancy Check
Q17. Which IP SLA operation type is enhanced by the use of the IP SLAs Responder?
C. ICMP Echo
D. UDP Echo
Q18. Which traffic-monitoring class allows Cisco PfR to run on platforms with limited border- router functionality?
A. active monitoring
B. fast failover monitoring
C. passive monitoring
D. combined monitoring
E. special monitoring
Q19. Refer to the exhibit.
You are configuring Router 1 and Routef2 for L2TPv3 tunneling.Which
two additional configurations are required to enable Router 1 and Routei'2 to establish the tuimel?(choose two)
A. Cisco Express Forwarding must be disabled on Router1
B. Loopback 0 on Router1 must be advertised to Router2
C. Cisco Discovery Protocol must be enabled on interface Fast Ethernet1/0 on Router1
D. An IP address must be configured on interface FastEthernet1/0 on Router1
E. Router1 must be configured to encapsulate traffic by using L2TPv3 under the pseudowire-class R1toR2.
Q20. Which statement about NAT64 is true?
A. NAT64 should be considered as a permanent solution.
B. NAT64 requires the use of DNS64.
C. NAT64 provides address family translation and translates IPv4 to IPv6 and IPv6 to IPv4.
D. NAT64 provides address family translation and can translate only IPv6 to IPv4.
Q21. What are the two Cisco recommended methods for reducing the size of the TCAM on a Layer 3 switch?Choose two
A. Use the ip route profile command.
B. Adjust the output queue buffers.
C. Filter unwanted routes.
D. Optimize the SDM template.
E. Use summary routes.
Q22. Which LSA type is associated with the default route in a totally stubby area?
A. interarea-prefix LSA for ABRs (Type 3)
B. autonomous system external LSA (Type 5)
C. router LSA (Type 1)
D. interarea-router LSAs for ASBRs (Type 4)
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