Exam Code: 400-101 (Practice Exam Latest Test Questions VCE PDF)
Exam Name: CCIE Routing and Switching (v5.0)
Certification Provider: Cisco
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Q461. Refer to the exhibit.
Which action must you take to enable full reachability from router C to router D?
A. Build an OSPF virtual link.
B. Build an OSPF sham link.
C. Configure mutual redistribution between OSPF and EIGRP on routers A and B.
D. Add a static route on router D.
For full connectivity, we need to configure mutual redistribution to advertise the EIGRP routes into OSPF and to advertise the OSPF routes into the EIGRP network. This needs to be done at the two border routers that connect to both the EIGRP and OSPF domains.
Q462. What are two reasons to define static peers in EIGRP? (Choose two.)
A. Security requirements do not allow dynamic learning of neighbors.
B. The link between peers requires multicast packets.
C. Back-level peers require static definition for successful connection.
D. The link between peers requires unicast packets.
There are two ways we can create EIGRP neighbor relationship:
+ Use “network ” command. This is the more popular way to create EIGRP neighbor relationship. That router will check which interfaces whose IP addresses belong to the and turn EIGRP on that interface. EIGRP messages are sent via multicast packets.
+ Use “neighbor” commanD. The interface(s) that have this command applied no longer send or receive EIGRP multicast packets. EIGRP messages are sent via unicast. The router only accepts EIGRP packets from peers that are explicitly configured with a neighbor statement. Consequently, any messages coming from routers without a corresponding neighbor statement are discarded. This helps prevent the insertion of unauthorized routing peers -> A and D are correct.
Q463. Which two features improve BGP convergence? (Choose two.)
A. next-hop address tracking
B. additional paths
C. advertise map
E. soft reconfiguration
The BGP Support for Next-Hop Address Tracking feature is enabled by default when a supporting Cisco software image is installed. BGP next-hop address tracking is event driven. BGP prefixes are automatically tracked as peering sessions are established. Next-hop changes are rapidly reported to the BGP routing process as they are updated in the RIB. This optimization improves overall BGP convergence by reducing the response time to next-hop changes for routes installed in the RIB. When a best path calculation is run in between BGP scanner cycles, only next-hop changes are tracked and processed. BGP routers and route reflectors (RRs) propagate only their best path over their sessions. The advertisement of a prefix replaces the previous announcement of that prefix (this behavior is known as an implicit withdraw). The implicit withdraw can achieve better scaling, but at the cost of path diversity. Path hiding can prevent efficient use of BGP multipath, prevent hitless planned maintenance, and can lead to MED oscillations and suboptimal hot-potato routing. Upon nexthop failures, path hiding also inhibits fast and local recovery because the network has to wait for BGP control plane convergence to restore traffic. The BGP Additional Paths feature provides a generic way of offering path diversity; the Best External or Best Internal features offer path diversity only in limited scenarios. The BGP Additional Paths feature provides a way for multiple paths for the same prefix to be advertised without the new paths implicitly replacing the previous paths. Thus, path diversity is achieved instead of path hiding.
References: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/ios-xml/ios/iproute_bgp/configuration/15-1sg/irg-nexthop-track.html http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/iproute_bgp/configuration/xe-3s/irg-xe-3s-book/bgp_additional_paths.html
Q464. Refer to the exhibit.
Which two possible network conditions can you infer from this configuration? (Choose two.)
A. The authentication parameters on R1 and R2 are mismatched.
B. R1 is using the default NTP source configuration.
C. R1 and R2 have established an NTP session.
D. R2 is configured as the NTP master with a stratum of 7.
Answer A. The NTP associations are not synced, it is only listed as a candidate because it was configured. Routing is not the issue, so it must be mismatched authentication parameters.
Answer B. NTP sets the source IP address for all NTP packets based on the address of the interface through which the NTP packets are sent. You can configure NTP to use a specific source IP address.
Q465. Which two statements about proxy ARP are true? (Choose two.)
A. It is supported on networks without ARP.
B. It allows machines to spoof packets.
C. It must be used on a network with the host on a different subnet.
D. It requires larger ARP tables.
E. It reduces the amount of ARP traffic.
Disadvantages of Proxy ARP
Hosts have no idea of the physical details of their network and assume it to be a flat network in which they can reach any destination simply by sending an ARP request. But using ARP for everything has disadvantages. These are some of the disadvantages:
It increases the amount of ARP traffic on your segment.
Hosts need larger ARP tables in order to handle IP-to-MAC address mappings.
Security can be undermined. A machine can claim to be another in order to intercept packets, an act called "spoofing."
It does not work for networks that do not use ARP for address resolution.
It does not generalize to all network topologies. For example, more than one router that connects two physical networks.
Q466. Which two statements are true about an EPL? (Choose two.)
A. It is a point-to-point Ethernet connection between a pair of NNIs.
B. It allows for service multiplexing.
C. It has a high degree of transparency.
D. The EPL service is also referred to as E-line.
Ethernet private line (EPL) and Ethernet virtual private line (EVPL) are carrier Ethernet data services defined by the Metro Ethernet Forum. EPL provides a point-to-point Ethernet virtual connection (EVC) between a pair of dedicated user–network interfaces (UNIs), with a high degree of transparency. EVPL provides a point-to-point or point-to-multipoint connection between a pair of UNIs. The services are categorized as an E-Line service type, with an expectation of low frame delay, frame delay variation and frame loss ratio. EPL is implemented using a point-to-point (EVC) with no Service Multiplexing at each UNI (physical interface), i.e., all service frames at the UNI are mapped to a single EVC (a.k.a. all-to-one bundling).
Q467. Which measure does IS-IS use to avoid sending traffic with a wrong MTU configuration?
A. IS-IS does not protect from MTU mismatch.
B. MTU value is communicated in IS-IS Sequence Number PDUs (SNP), and IS-IS adjacency is not established if an MTU mismatch is detected.
C. IS-IS uses path MTU discovery as specified in RFC 1063.
D. IS-IS uses padding of hello packets to full MTU.
Intermediate System-to-Intermediate System (IS-IS) hellos are padded to the full maximum transmission unit (MTU) size. The benefit of padding IS-IS Hellos (IIHs) to the full MTU is that it allows for early detection of errors due to transmission problems with large frames or due to mismatched MTUs on adjacent interfaces.
Q468. DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the OSPFv3 LSA type on the left to the functionality it provides on the right.
Q469. Which statement about SSHv2 is true?
A. Routers acting as SSH clients can operate without RSA keys.
B. SSHv2 supports port forwarding and compression.
C. The RSA key pair size must be at least 512.
D. You must configure a default gateway before you enable SSHv2.
Q470. Which LSA type is associated with the default route in a totally stubby area?
A. interarea-prefix LSA for ABRs (Type 3)
B. autonomous system external LSA (Type 5)
C. router LSA (Type 1)
D. interarea-router LSAs for ASBRs (Type 4)
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