400-101 Guide

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  • Cisco
  • Exam Number/Code 400-101
  • Product Name CCIE Routing and Switching (v5.0)
  • Questions and Answers
  • 911 Q&As
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2016 Sep 400-101 ccie written exam number:

Q261. External EIGRP route exchange on routers R1 and R2 was failing because the routers had duplicate router IDs. You changed the eigrp router-id command on R1, but the problem persists. Which additional action must you take to enable the routers to exchange routes? 

A. Change the corresponding loopback address. 

B. Change the router ID on R2. 

C. Reset the EIGRP neighbor relationship. 

D. Clear the EIGRP process. 

Answer: D 


Q262. Which two statements about device access control are true? (Choose two.) 

A. The AUX port is displayed as type tty in the output of the show line command. 

B. VTY lines are associated with physical interfaces on a network device. 

C. MPP restricts device-management access to interfaces that are configured under the control plane host configuration. 

D. The enable password command sets an MD5 one-way encrypted password. 

E. The console port supports hardware flow control 

Answer: C,E 


Q263. On a network using RIPng, the prefix field of a routing table entry has a value of 0:0:0:0:0:0:0:0. What does this value signify? 

A. The next hop address is unknown. 

B. The next hop address is a site-local address. 

C. The neighboring router has IPv6 ND disabled. 

D. The next hop address must be the originator of the route advertisement. 

E. The associated route follows a default route out of the network. 

Answer: E 


Q264. Which two options are ways in which an OSPFv3 router handles hello packets with a clear address-family bit? (Choose two.) 

A. IPv4 unicast packets are discarded. 

B. IPv6 unicast packets are discarded. 

C. IPv4 unicast packets are forwarded. 

D. IPv6 unicast packets are forwarded. 

Answer: A,D 

Explanation: 

A typical distance vector protocol saves the following information when computing the best path to a destination: the distance (total metric or distance, such as hop count) and the vector (the next hop). For instance, all the routers in the network in Figure 1 are running Routing Information Protocol (RIP). Router Two chooses the path to Network A by examining the hop count through each available path. 


Since the path through Router Three is three hops, and the path through Router One is two hops, Router Two chooses the path through One and discards the information it learned through Three. If the path between Router One and Network A goes down, Router Two loses all connectivity with this destination until it times out the route of its routing table (three update periods, or 90 seconds), and Router Three re-advertises the route (which occurs every 30 seconds in RIP). Not including any hold-down time, it will take between 90 and 120 seconds for Router Two to switch the path from Router One to Router Three. EIGRP, instead of counting on full periodic updates to re-converge, builds a topology table from each of its neighbor's advertisements (rather than discarding the data), and converges by either looking for a likely loop-free route in the topology table, or, if it knows of no other route, by querying its neighbors. Router Two saves the information it received from both Routers One and Three. It chooses the path through One as its best path (the successor) and the path through Three as a loop-free path (a feasible successor). When the path through Router One becomes unavailable, Router Two examines its topology table and, finding a feasible successor, begins using the path through Three immediately. 

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/ip/enhanced-interior-gateway-routing-protocol-eigrp/16406-eigrp-toc.html 


Q265. Which two options are requirements for Control-Plane Policing? (Choose two.) 

A. Cisco Express Forwarding must be enabled globally. 

B. Cisco Discovery Protocol must be disabled in the control plane. 

C. A crypto policy must be installed. 

D. A loopback address must be configured for device access. 

E. A class map must be configured to identify traffic. 

Answer: A,E 


400-101 dumps

Most recent 400-101 ccie written exam number:

Q266. Which circumstance can cause packet loss due to a microburst? 

A. slow convergence 

B. a blocked spanning-tree port 

C. process switching 

D. insufficient buffers 

Answer: D 

Explanation: 

Micro-bursting is a phenomenon where rapid bursts of data packets are sent in quick succession, leading to periods of full line-rate transmission that can overflow packet buffers of the network stack, both in network endpoints and routers and switches inside the network. 

Symptoms of micro bursts will manifest in the form of ignores and/ or overruns (also shown as accumulated in “input error” counter within show interface output). This is indicative of receive ring and corresponding packet buffer being overwhelmed due to data bursts coming in over extremely short period of time (microseconds). 

Reference: http://ccieordie.com/?tag=micro-burst 


Q267. Which two options are advantages of NetFlow version 9 over NetFlow version 5? (Choose two.) 

A. NetFlow version 9 adds support for IPv6 headers. 

B. NetFlow version 9 adds support for MPLS labels. 

C. NetFlow version 9 adds support for the Type of Service field. 

D. NetFlow version 9 adds support for ICMP types and codes. 

Answer: A,B 

Explanation: 

NetFlow version 9 includes support for all of these fields that version 5 supports and can optionally include additional information such as Multiprotocol Label Switching (MPLS) labels and IPv6 addresses and ports. 


Q268. Which EEM event detector is triggered by hardware installation or removal? 

A. Enhanced-Object-Tracking Event Detector 

B. Resource Event Detector 

C. OIR Event Detector 

D. CLI Event Detector 

Answer: C 


Q269. In a network where a Layer 2 switch interconnects several routers, which feature restricts multicast packets for each IP multicast group to only those mulicast router ports that have downstream receivers joined to that group? 

A. PIM snooping 

B. IGMP snooping 

C. IGMP filter 

D. IGMP proxy 

Answer: A 

Explanation: 

In networks where a Layer 2 switch interconnects several routers, such as an Internet exchange point (IXP), the switch floods IP multicast packets on all multicast router ports by default, even if there are no multicast receivers downstream. With PIM snooping enabled, the switch restricts multicast packets for each IP multicast group to only those multicast router ports that have downstream receivers joined to that group. When you enable PIM snooping, the switch learns which multicast router ports need to receive the multicast traffic within a specific VLAN by listening to the PIM hello messages, PIM join and prune messages, and bidirectional PIM designated forwarder-election messages. 

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/lan/catalyst6500/ios/12-2SX/configuration/guide/book/snooppim.html 


Q270. Which two statements about packet fragmentation on an IPv6 network are true? (Choose two.) 

A. The fragment header is 64 bits long. 

B. The identification field is 32 bits long. 

C. The fragment header is 32 bits long. 

D. The identification field is 64 bits long. 

E. The MTU must be a minimum of 1280 bytes. 

F. The fragment header is 48 bits long. 

Answer: A,B 

Explanation: 

The fragment header is shown below, being 64 bits total with a 32 bit identification field: 


Reference: http://www.openwall.com/presentations/IPv6/img24.html 


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