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  • Exam Number/Code 400-101
  • Product Name CCIE Routing and Switching (v5.0)
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Amazing 400-101 ccie written exam number secrets

Exam Code: 400-101 (Practice Exam Latest Test Questions VCE PDF)
Exam Name: CCIE Routing and Switching (v5.0)
Certification Provider: Cisco
Free Today! Guaranteed Training- Pass 400-101 Exam.

2016 Sep ccie written exam:

Q571. Which statement is true comparing L2TPv3 to EoMPLS? 

A. L2TPv3 requires OSPF routing, whereas EoMPLS does not. 

B. EoMPLS requires BGP routing, whereas L2TPv3 does not. 

C. L2TPv3 carries L2 frames inside MPLS tagged packets, whereas EoMPLS carries L2 frames inside IPv4 packets. 

D. L2TPv3 carries L2 frames inside IPv4 packets, whereas EoMPLS carries L2 frames inside MPLS packets. 

Answer: D 


Ethernet-over-MPLS (EoMPLS) provides a tunneling mechanism for Ethernet traffic through an MPLS-enabled L3 core and encapsulates Ethernet protocol data units (PDUs) inside MPLS packets (using label stacking) to forward them across the MPLS network. Another technology that more or less achieves the result of AToM is L2TPV3. In the case of L2TPV3 Layer 2 frames are encapsulated into an IP packet instead of a labelled MPLS packet. 

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/routers/asr9000/software/asr9k_r4-3/lxvpn/configuration/guide/lesc43xbook/lesc43p2ps.html 

Q572. Refer to the exhibit. 

Which two commands are required on R3 in order for MPLS to function? (Choose two.) 

A. mpls ip 

B. ip cef 

C. mpls label protocol tdp 

D. mpls ip propagate-ttl 

Answer: A,B 

Q573. Refer to the exhibit. 

What is the role of this multicast router? 

A. a first-hop PIM router 

B. a last-hop PIM router 

C. a PIM rendezvous point 

D. a PIM inter-AS router 

Answer: C 


The following is sample output from the show ip pim tunnel taken from an RP. The output is used to verify the PIM Encap and Decap Tunnel on the RP: 

Switch# show ip pim tunnel 


Type : PIM Encap 

RP :* 



Type : PIM Decap 

RP :* 

SourcE. -R2# 

The asterisk (*) indicates that the router is the RP. The RP will always have a PIM Encap and Decap Tunnel interface. 


http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/lan/catalyst3650/software/release/3se/multic ast/command_reference/b_mc_3se_3650_cr/b_mc_3se_3650_cr_chapter_010.html#wp12 86920037 

Q574. A company has just opened two remote branch offices that need to be connected to the corporate network. Which interface configuration output can be applied to the corporate router to allow communication to the remote sites? 

A. interface Tunnel0 

bandwidth 1536 

ip address 

tunnel source Serial0/0 

tunnel mode gre multipoint 

B. interface fa0/0 

bandwidth 1536 

ip address 

tunnel mode gre multipoint 

C. interface Tunnel0 

bandwidth 1536 

ip address 

tunnel source 

tunnel-mode dynamic 

D. interface fa 0/0 

bandwidth 1536 

ip address 

tunnel source 

tunnel destination 

tunnel-mode dynamic 

Answer: A 

Q575. Which two statements about private VLANs are true? (Choose two.) 

A. Only one isolated VLAN can be mapped to a primary VLAN. 

B. Only one community VLAN can be mapped to a primary VLAN. 

C. Multiple isolated VLANs can be mapped to a primary VLAN. 

D. Multiple community VLANs can be mapped to a primary VLAN. 

Answer: A,D 


An isolated VLAN is a secondary VLAN that carries unidirectional traffic upstream from the hosts toward the promiscuous ports. You can configure only one isolated VLAN in a PVLAN domain. An isolated VLAN can have several isolated ports. The traffic from each isolated port also remains completely separate. Only one isolated VLAN can be mapped under a given primary VLAN. A community VLAN is a secondary VLAN that carries upstream traffic from the community ports to the promiscuous port and to other host ports in the same community. You can configure multiple community VLANs in a PVLAN domain. The ports within one community can communicate, but these ports cannot communicate with ports in any other community or isolated VLAN in the private VLAN. 

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/nexus6000/sw/layer2/6x/b_6k_L ayer2_Config_6x/b_6k_Layer2_Config_602N12_chapter_011.html 

400-101 practice question

Renew ccie dumps 400-101:

Q576. Which protocol will accept incoming updates when the passive-interface command is configured? 





Answer: C 

Q577. Refer to the exhibit. 

Which statement is true? 

A. 2001:DB8::1/128 is a local host route, and it can be redistributed into a dynamic routing protocol. 

B. 2001:DB8::1/128 is a local host route, and it cannot be redistributed into a dynamic routing protocol. 

C. 2001:DB8::1/128 is a local host route that was created because ipv6 unicast-routing is not enabled on this router. 

D. 2001:DB8::1/128 is a route that was put in the IPv6 routing table because one of this router's loopback interfaces has the IPv6 address 2001:DB8::1/128. 

Answer: B 


The local routes have the administrative distance of 0. This is the same adminstrative distance as connected routes. However, when you configure redistributed connected under any routing process, the connected routes are redistributed, but the local routes are not. This behavior allows the networks to not require a large number of host routes, because the networks of the interfaces are advertised with their proper masks. These host routes are only needed on the router that owns the IP address in order to process packets destined to that IP address. 

It is normal for local host routes to be listed in the IPv4 and IPv6 routing table for IP addresses of the router's interfaces. Their purpose is to create a corresponding CEF entry as a receive entry so that the packets destined to this IP address can be processed by the router itself. These routes cannot be redistributed into any routing protocol. 

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/ip/ip-routing/116264-technote-ios-00.html 

Q578. Which option is the most effective action to avoid packet loss due to microbursts? 

A. Implement larger buffers. 

B. Install a faster CPU. 

C. Install a faster network interface. 

D. Configure a larger tx-ring size. 

Answer: A 


You can't avoid or prevent them as such without modifying the sending host's application/network stack so it smoothes out the bursts. However, you can manage 

microbursts by tuning the size of receive buffers / rings to absorb occasional microbursts. 

Q579. Which two functions are performed by the DR in OSPF? (Choose two.) 

A. The DR originates the network LSA on behalf of the network. 

B. The DR is responsible for the flooding throughout one OSPF area. 

C. The DR forms adjacencies with all other OSPF routers on the network, in order to synchronize the LSDB across the adjacencies. 

D. The DR is responsible for originating the type 4 LSAs into one area. 

Answer: A,C 


The DR originates the network LSA (LSA Type 2) which lists all the routers on the segment it is adjacent to -> A is correct. Types 2 are ooded within its area only; does not cross ABR -> B is incorrect. The broadcast and non-broadcast network types elect a DR/BDR. They form adjacencies to all other OSPF routers on the network and help synchronize the Link State Database (LSDB) across the adjacencies -> C is correct. LSAs Type 4 are originated by the ABR to describe an ASBR to routers in other areas so that routers in other areas know how to get to external routes through that ASBR -> D is incorrect. 

Q580. Refer to the exhibit. 

Which two are causes of output queue drops on FastEthernet0/0? (Choose two.) 

A. an oversubscribed input service policy on FastEthernet0/0 

B. a duplex mismatch on FastEthernet0/0 

C. a bad cable connected to FastEthernet0/0 

D. an oversubscribed output service policy on FastEthernet0/0 

E. The router trying to send more than 100 Mb/s out of FastEthernet0/0 

Answer: D,E 


Output drops are caused by a congested interface. For example, the traffic rate on the outgoing interface cannot accept all packets that should be sent out, or a service policy is applied that is oversubscribed. The ultimate solution to resolve the problem is to increase the line speed. However, there are ways to prevent, decrease, or control output drops when you do not want to increase the line speed. You can prevent output drops only if output drops are a consequence of short bursts of data. If output drops are caused by a constant high-rate flow, you cannot prevent the drops. However, you can control them. 

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/routers/10000-series-routers/6343-queue-drops.html 

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