400-101 Guide

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  • Cisco
  • Exam Number/Code 400-101
  • Product Name CCIE Routing and Switching (v5.0)
  • Questions and Answers
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2016 Nov 400-101 ccie written exam number:

Q341. Which two options are causes of out-of-order packets? (Choose two.) 

A. a routing loop 

B. a router in the packet flow path that is intermittently dropping packets 

C. high latency 

D. packets in a flow traversing multiple paths through the network 

E. some packets in a flow being process-switched and others being interrupt-switched on a transit router 

Answer: D,E 

Explanation: 

In traditional packet forwarding systems, using different paths have varying latencies that cause out of order packets, eventually resulting in far lower performance for the network application. Also, if some packets are process switched quickly by the routing engine of the router while others are interrupt switched (which takes more time) then it could result in out of order packets. The other options would cause packet drops or latency, but not out of order packets. 


Q342. Which two statements about NPTv6 are true? (Choose two.) 

A. The translation is invisible to applications that hard code IP information within the application logic. 

B. It is a one-way stateful translation for the IPv6 address. 

C. Translation is 1:1 at the network layer. 

D. It is a two-way stateless translation for the network prefix. 

Answer: C,D 

Explanation: 

This document describes a stateless, transport-agnostic IPv6-to-IPv6 Network Prefix Translation (NPTv6) function that provides the address-independence benefit associated with IPv4-to-IPv4 NAT (NAPT44) and provides a 1:1 relationship between addresses in the "inside" and "outside" prefixes, preserving end-to-end reachability at the network layer NPTv6 Translation is stateless, so a "reset" or brief outage of an NPTv6 Translator does not break connections that traverse the translation function, and if multiple NPTv6 Translators exist between the same two networks, the load can shift or be dynamically load shared among them. NPTv6 is defined to include a two-way, checksum-neutral, algorithmic translation function, and nothing else. 

Reference: https://tools.ietf.org/html/rfc6296 


Q343. How does EIGRP derive the metric for manual summary routes? 

A. It uses the best composite metric of any component route in the topology table. 

B. It uses the worst composite metric of any component route in the topology table. 

C. It uses the best metric vectors of all component routes in the topology table. 

D. It uses the worst metric vectors of all component routes in the topology table. 

Answer:

Explanation: 

For example if your router has a routing table like this: 

D 192.168.8.0/24 [90/2632528] via 192.168.0.1, 00:00:12, Serial0/0 

D 192.168.9.0/24 [90/2323456] via 192.168.0.1, 00:00:12, Serial0/0 

D 192.168.10.0/24 [90/2195456] via 192.168.0.1, 00:00:12, Serial0/0 

D 192.168.11.0/24 [90/2323456] via 192.168.0.1, 00:00:12, Serial0/0 

Now suppose you want to manually summarize all the routes above, you can use this command (on the router that advertised these routes to our router): 

Router(config-if)#ip summary-address eigrp 1 192.168.8.0 255.255.248.0 

After that the routing table of your router will look like this: 

D 192.168.8.0/21 [90/2195456] via 192.168.0.1, 00:01:42, Serial0/0 

And we can see the manual summary route takes the smallest metric of the specific routes. 


Q344. Which IPv6 prefix is used for 6to4 tunnel addresses? 

A. 2001::/23 

B. 2002::/16 

C. 3ffe::/16 

D. 5f00::/8 

E. 2001::/32 

Answer:

Explanation: 

6to4 works by taking advantage of a reserved IPv6 prefix, 2002::/16. A 6to4 tunnel interface automatically converts the 32 bits in its IPv6 address following this prefix to a global unicast IPv4 address for transport across an IPv4 network such as the public Internet. 

Reference: http://packetlife.net/blog/2010/mar/15/6to4-ipv6-tunneling/ 


Q345. Which three condition types can be monitored by crypto conditional debug? (Choose three.) 

A. Peer hostname 

B. SSL 

C. ISAKMP 

D. Flow ID 

E. IPsec 

F. Connection ID 

Answer: A,D,F 

Explanation: 

Supported Condition Types 

The new crypto conditional debug CLIs--debug crypto condition, debug crypto condition unmatched, and show crypto debug-condition--allow you to specify conditions (filter values) in which to generate and display debug messages related only to the specified conditions. The table below lists the supported condition types. 

Table 1 Supported Condition Types for Crypto Debug CLI 

Condition Type (Keyword) 

Description 

connid 1 

An integer between 1-32766. Relevant debug messages will be shown if the current IPSec operation uses this value as the connection ID to interface with the crypto engine. 

flowid 1 

An integer between 1-32766. Relevant debug messages will be shown if the current IPSec operation uses this value as the flow-ID to interface with the crypto engine. 

FVRF 

The name string of a virtual private network (VPN) routing and forwarding (VRF) instance. Relevant debug messages will be shown if the current IPSec operation uses this VRF instance as its front-door VRF (FVRF). 

IVRF 

The name string of a VRF instance. Relevant debug messages will be shown if the current IPSec operation uses this VRF instance as its inside VRF (IVRF). 

peer group 

A Unity group-name string. Relevant debug messages will be shown if the peer is using this group name as its identity. 

peer hostname 

A fully qualified domain name (FQDN) string. Relevant debug messages will be shown if the peer is using this string as its identity; for example, if the peer is enabling IKE Xauth with this FQDN string. 

peeripaddress 

A single IP address. Relevant debug messages will be shown if the current IPSec operation is related to the IP address of this peer. 

peer subnet 

A subnet and a subnet mask that specify a range of peer IP addresses. Relevant debug messages will be shown if the IP address of the current IPSec peer falls into the specified subnet range. 

peer username 

A username string. Relevant debug messages will be shown if the peer is using this username as its identity; for example, if the peer is enabling IKE Extended Authentication (Xauth) with this username. 

SPI 1 

A 32-bit unsigned integer. Relevant debug messages will be shown if the current IPSec operation uses this value as the SPI. 

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/sec_conn_vpnips/configuration/xe-3s/sec-sec-for-vpns-w-ipsec-xe-3s-book/sec-crypto-debug-sup.html 


Abreast of the times 400-101 ccie written exam number:

Q346. Refer to the exhibit. 

Which statement describes the effect on the network if FastEthernet0/1 goes down temporarily? 

A. FastEthernet0/2 forwards traffic only until FastEthernet0/1 comes back up. 

B. FastEthernet0/2 stops forwarding traffic until FastEthernet0/1 comes back up. 

C. FastEthernet0/2 forwards traffic indefinitely. 

D. FastEthernet0/1 goes into standby. 

Answer:

Explanation: 

Use the switchport backup interface interface configuration command on a Layer 2 interface to configure Flex Links, a pair of interfaces that provide backup to each other. Use the no form of this command to remove the Flex Links configuration. With Flex Links configured, one link acts as the primary interface and forwards traffic, while the other interface is in standby mode, ready to begin forwarding traffic if the primary link shuts down. The interface being configured is referred to as the active link; the specified interface is identified as the backup link. The feature provides an alternative to the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP), allowing users to turn off STP and still retain basic link redundancy. 

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/lan/catalyst2960/software/release/12-2_53_se/command/reference/2960ComRef/cli3.html#wp3269214 


Q347. Which two statements are true about unicast RPF? (Choose two.) 

A. Unicast RPF requires CEF to be enabled. 

B. Unicast RPF strict mode works better with multihomed networks. 

C. Unicast RPF strict mode supports symmetric paths. 

D. Unicast RPF strict mode supports asymmetric paths. 

E. CEF is optional with Unicast RPF, but when CEF is enabled it provides better performance. 

Answer: A,C 

Explanation: 

Unicast RPF requires Cisco express forwarding (CEF) to function properly on the router. 

Strict Versus Loose Checking Mode 

The Unicast RPF in Strict Mode feature filters ingress IPv4 traffic in strict checking mode and forwards packets only if the following conditions are satisfied. 

. An IPv4 packet must be received at an interface with the best return path (route) to the packet source (a process called symmetric routing). There must be a route in the Forwarding Information Base (FIB) that matches the route to the receiving interface. Adding a route in the FIB can be done via static route, network statement, or dynamic routing. 

. IPv4 source addresses at the receiving interface must match the routing entry for the interface. 

References: 

http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios/12_2/security/configuration/guide/fsecur_c/scfrpf. html 

http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios/12_0s/feature/guide/srpf_gsr.html 


Q348. DRAG DROP 

Drag and drop the EIGRP query condition on the left to the corresponding action taken by the router on the right. 

Answer: 


Q349. Refer to the exhibit. 

Which statement about the debug behavior of the device is true? 

A. The device debugs all IP events for 172.16.129.4. 

B. The device sends all debugging information for 172.16.129.4. 

C. The device sends only NTP debugging information to 172.16.129.4. 

D. The device sends debugging information every five seconds. 

Answer:

Explanation: 

This is an example of a conditional debug, where there is a single condition specified of IP address 172.16.129.4. So, all IP events for that address will be output in the debug. 


Q350. A configuration includes the line ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 172.16.10.10 permanent. 

Which option is a benefit of configuring this static route as permanent? 

A. It allows the route to be redistributed into the network even if the outgoing interface is down. 

B. It allows the route to be saved in the running configuration of the device. 

C. It places a hidden tag on the route that can be matched on other devices. 

D. It allows the route to have a tracking status even if no tracking object is configured. 

Answer:


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