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Q321. Which three components comprise the structure of a pseudowire FEC element? (Choose three.)
A. pseudowire ID
B. pseudowire type
C. control word
D. Layer 3 PDU
E. header checksum
F. type of service
The Pseudowire ID FEC element has the following components:
. Pseudowire ID FEC — The first octet has a value of 128 that identifies it as a Pseudowire ID FEC element.
. Control Word Bit (C-Bit) — The C-bit indicates whether the advertising PE expects the control word to be present for pseudowire packets. A control word is an optional 4-byte field located between the MPLS label stack and the Layer 2 payload in the pseudowire packet. The control word carries generic and Layer 2 payload-specific information. If the C-bit is set to 1, the advertising PE expects the control word to be present in every pseudowire packet on the pseudowire that is being signaled. If the C-bit is set to 0, no control word is expected to be present.
. Pseudowire Type — PW Type is a 15-bit field that represents the type of pseudowire. Examples of pseudowire types are shown in Table 6-1.
. Pseudowire Information Length — Pseudowire Information Length is the length of the Pseudowire ID field and the interface parameters in octets. When the length is set to 0, this FEC element stands for all pseudowires using the specified Group ID. The Pseudowire ID and Interface Parameters fields are not present.
. Group ID — The Group ID field is a 32-bit arbitrary value that is assigned to a group of pseudowires.
. Pseudowire ID — The Pseudowire ID, also known as VC ID, is a non-zero, 32-bit identifier that distinguishes one pseudowire from another. To connect two attachment circuits through a pseudowire, you need to associate each one with the same Pseudowire ID.
. Interface Parameters — The variable-length Interface Parameters field provides attachment circuit-specific information, such as interface MTU, maximum number of concatenated ATM cells, interface description, and so on.
Q322. Which attribute is transported over an MPLS VPN as a BGP extended community?
A. route target
B. route distinguisher
E. local preference
Q323. Refer to the exhibit.
If a Layer 3 switch running OSPF in a VRF-lite configuration reports this error, which action can you take to correct the problem?
A. Set mls cef maximum-routes in the global configuration.
B. Add the vrf-lite capability to the OSPF configuration.
C. Upgrade the Layer 3 switch to a model that can support more routes.
D. Configure the control plane with a larger memory allocation to support the Cisco Express Forwarding Information Base.
Q324. What is a disadvantage of using aggressive mode instead of main mode for ISAKMP/IPsec establishment?
A. It does not use Diffie-Hellman for secret exchange.
B. It does not support dead peer detection.
C. It does not support NAT traversal.
D. It does not hide the identity of the peer.
IKE phase 1's purpose is to establish a secure authenticated communication channel by using the Diffie–Hellman key exchange algorithm to generate a shared secret key to encrypt further IKE communications. This negotiation results in one single bi-directional ISAKMP Security Association (SA). The authentication can be performed using either pre-shared key (shared secret), signatures, or public key encryption.Phase 1 operates in either Main Mode or Aggressive Mode. Main Mode protects the identity of the peers; Aggressive Mode does not.
Q325. Which two statements about the function of a PIM designated router are true? (Choose two.)
A. It forwards multicast traffic from the source into the PIM network.
B. It registers directly connected sources to the PIM rendezvous point.
C. It sends PIM Join/Prune messages for directly connected receivers.
D. It sends IGMP queries.
E. It sends PIM asserts on the interfaces of the outgoing interface list.
In PIM ASM and SSM modes, the software chooses a designated router (DR) from the routers on each network segment. The DR is responsible for forwarding multicast data for specified groups and sources on that segment. In ASM mode, the DR is responsible for unicasting PIM register packets to the RP. When a DR receives an IGMP membership report from a directly connected receiver, the shortest path is formed to the RP, which may or may not go through the DR. The result is a shared tree that connects all sources transmitting on the same multicast group to all receivers of that group. In SSM mode, the DR triggers (*, G) or (S, G) PIM join messages toward the RP or the source. The path from the receiver to the source is determined hop by hop. The source must be known to the receiver or the DR.
Q326. Refer to the exhibit.
Which two actions can you take to enable CE-1 at site A to access the Internet? (Choose two.)
A. Create a default route for site A on PE-1 with the next hop set to the PE-2 interface to the Internet.
B. Originate a default route in site B with the next hop set to the PE-2 Internet interface, and import the default route into site A.
C. Create a default route on CE-1 with the next hop set to the PE-1 upstream interface.
D. Originate a default route in site A with the next hop set to the PE-2 interface to CE-1.
E. Create a static default route on CE-1 with the next hop set to the PE-2 interface to the Internet.
Q327. Which two methods can you use to limit the range for EIGRP queries? (Choose two.)
A. Use an access list to deny the multicast address 220.127.116.11 outbound from select EIGRP neighbor and permit everything else.
B. Configure route tagging for all EIGRP routes.
C. Summarize routes at the boundary routers of the EIGRP domain.
D. Configure unicast EIGRP on all routers in the EIGRP domain.
E. Configure stub routers in the EIGRP domain.
F. Use an access list to deny the multicast address 18.104.22.168 outbound from select EIGRP neighbors and permit everything else.
Q328. Refer to the exhibit.
Which configuration can you implement on PE-1 to allow CE-1 to receive delegated IPv6 prefixes?
A. Exhibit A
B. Exhibit B
C. Exhibit C
D. Exhibit D
E. Exhibit E
Q329. Refer to the exhibit.
Which statement about authentication on Router A is true?
A. The router will attempt to authenticate users against TACACS+ only.
B. The router will attempt to authenticate users against the local database only.
C. The router will attempt to authenticate users against the local database first, and fall back to TACACS+ if the local database authentication fails.
D. The router will authenticate users against the default database only.
E. The router will attempt to authenticate users against TACACS+ first, and fall back to the local database if the TACACS+ authentication fails.
Q330. Refer to the exhibit.
While configuring AAA with a local database, users can log in via Telnet, but receive the message "error in authentication" when they try to go into enable mode. Which action can solve this problem?
A. Configure authorization to allow the enable command.
B. Use aaa authentication login default enable to allow authentication when using the enable command.
C. Verify whether an enable password has been configured.
D. Use aaa authentication enable default enable to allow authentication when using the enable command.
If a different enable password is configured, it will override the privilege level 15 of that user and force the existing password to be used for enable access.
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