400-101 Guide

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  • Exam Number/Code 400-101
  • Product Name CCIE Routing and Switching (v5.0)
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Ultimate Guide: ccie 400 101 dumps

Q61. Which three options are components of an EEM CLI policy? (Choose three.) 

A. Safe-Tcl 

B. applet name 

C. Fast Tcl 

D. event 

E. action 

F. Tcl bytecode 

Answer: B,D,E 

Explanation: 

The Embedded Event Manager (EEM) monitors events that occur on your device and takes action to recover or troubleshoot these events, based on your configuration. 

EEM consists of three major components: 

Event statements — Events to monitor from another Cisco NX-OS component that might require some action, workaround, or notification. 

Action statements — An action that EEM can take, such as sending an e-mail, or disabling an interface, to recover from an event. 

Policies — An applet name paired with one or more actions to troubleshoot or recover from the event. 

Reference: 

http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/nexus5500/sw/system_manage ment/6x/b_5500_System_Mgmt_Config_6x/b_5500_System_Mgmt_Config_6x_chapter_01 0011.html 


Q62. Which command drops packets with unknown source addresses until you remove a sufficient number of secure MAC addresses to drop below the maximum value, and also causes the Security Violation counter to increment? 

A. switchport port-security violation protect 

B. switchport port-security violation drop 

C. switchport port-security violation shutdown 

D. switchport port-security violation restrict 

Answer:

Explanation: 

When configuring port security violation modes, note the following information: 

. protect—Drops packets with unknown source addresses until you remove a sufficient number of secure MAC addresses to drop below the maximum value. 

. restrict—Drops packets with unknown source addresses until you remove a sufficient number of secure MAC addresses to drop below the maximum value and causes the SecurityViolation counter to increment. 

. shutdown—Puts the interface into the error-disabled state immediately and sends an SNMP trap notification. 

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/lan/catalyst6500/ios/12-2SX/configuration/guide/book/port_sec.html 


Q63. Which two statements about the default SNMP configuration are true? (Choose two.) 

A. The SNMP agent is enabled. 

B. The SNMP trap receiver is configured. 

C. All SNMP notification types are sent. 

D. SNMPv1 is the default version. 

E. SNMPv3 is the default version. 

Answer: C,D 

Explanation: 

Default SNMP Configuration 

Feature 

Default Setting 

SNMP agent 

Enabled SNMP community strings 

Read-Only: Public 

Read-WritE. Private 

Read-Write-all: Secret 

SNMP trap receiver 

None configured 

SNMP traps 

None enabled 

SNMP version 

If no version keyword is present, the default is version 1. 

SNMPv3 authentication 

If no keyword is entered, the default is the noauth (noAuthNoPriv) security level. 

SNMP notification type 

If no type is specified, all notifications are sent. 

Reference: 

http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/lan/catalyst2950/software/release/12-1_19_ea1/configuration/guide/2950scg/swsnmp.html 


Q64. DRAG DROP 

Drag and drop the BGP attribute on the left to the correct category on the right. 

Answer: 


Q65. Which two options are required parts of an EEM policy? (Choose two.) 

A. event register keyword 

B. body 

C. environment must defines 

D. namespace import 

E. entry status 

F. exit status 

Answer: A,B 

Explanation: 

EEM policies require two parts: the event register keyword and the body. The remaining 

parts of the policy are optional: environment must defines, namespace import, entry status, 

and exit status (Figure 5). 

Figure 5. EEM Policy Parts 

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/ios-nx-os-software/ios-

embedded-event-manager-eem/config_guide_eem_configuration_for_cisco_integrated_services_router_platforms.htm 


Q66. Which two protocols does the Management Plane Protection feature support? (Choose two.) 

A. ARP 

B. HTTPS 

C. TFTP 

D. OSPF 

Answer: B,C 


Q67. Refer to the exhibit. 

How many LSDBs will router A have? 

A. 0 

B. 1 

C. 2 

D. 3 

Answer:


Q68. Which two statements about IOS and IOS XE are true? (Choose two.) 

A. IOS XE can upgrade and restart applications independently of IOS. 

B. Only IOS uses the FFM to provide separation between the control plane and the data plane. 

C. IOS XE provides improved functionality and an enhanced UI. 

D. Only IOS runs as a single daemon within the Linux OS. 

E. IOS XE provides additional system functions that run as multiple separate processes in the OS. 

Answer: A,E 


Q69. Refer to the exhibit. 

If OSPF is implemented on the network, which additional configuration is needed to allow traffic from host 10.4.1.15/24 to host 10.1.2.20/24? 

A. A virtual link between router 2 and router 4 

B. A virtual link between router 3 and router 4 

C. A virtual link between router 2 and router 3 

D. The current design allows traffic between the two hosts. 

Answer:

Explanation: 

This specific traffic from 10.4.1.0/24 to 10.1.2.0/24 would work because this traffic crosses only over the single OSPF area of 0.0.0.1. 

However, traffic from hosts on R4 to R1 would indeed need a virtual link, since area 0.0.0.2 is not connected to the backbone area of 0.0.0.0. 


Q70. Which option describes the purpose of the PPP endpoint discriminator? 

A. It identifies the maximum payload packet. 

B. It notifies the peer that it prefers 12-bit sequence numbers. 

C. It identifies the system attached to the link. 

D. It determines whether a loopback is on the link. 

Answer:

Explanation: 

In situations in which many clients use the same username to initiate an MP connection, or when interoperating with non-Cisco routers, you need to control the order in which the bundle name is created. It is necessary to configure the access server to create a bundle name based on the endpoint discriminator first, the username second, or both. The endpoint discriminator identifies the system transmitting the packet and advises the network access server (NAS) that the peer on this link could be the same as the peer on another existing link. Because every client has a unique endpoint discriminator, only multiple links from the same client are bundled into a single unique MP connection. For example, consider when two PC clients initiate a multilink connection to an access server using the same username. If the multilink bundle name is established based on the endpoint discriminator first, then on the username or on both, the NAS can accurately bundle the links from each client using the endpoint discriminator as a bundle name. This bundle name is unique to the peer system transmitting the packet. 

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/wan/point-to-point-protocol-ppp/10238-mppp-bundle-name.html 


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