400-101 Guide

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  • Cisco
  • Exam Number/Code 400-101
  • Product Name CCIE Routing and Switching (v5.0)
  • Questions and Answers
  • 911 Q&As
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  • Jun 18,2018
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Q101. Two routers are trying to establish an OSPFv3 adjacency over an Ethernet link, but the adjacency is not forming. Which two options are possible reasons that prevent OSPFv3 to form between these two routers? (Choose two.) 

A. mismatch of subnet masks 

B. mismatch of network types 

C. mismatch of authentication types 

D. mismatch of instance IDs 

E. mismatch of area types 

Answer: D,E 


An OSPFv3 interface must have a compatible configuration with a remote interface before the two can be considered neighbors. The two OSPFv3 interfaces must match the following criteria: 

. Hello interval 

. Dead interval 

. Area ID 

. Optional capabilities 

The OSPFv3 header includes an instance ID field to identify that OSPFv3 packet for a particular OSPFv3 instance. You can assign the OSPFv3 instance. The interface drops all OSPFv3 packets that do not have a matching OSPFv3 instance ID in the packet header. 

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/sw/5_x/nx-os/unicast/configuration/guide/l3_cli_nxos/l3_ospfv3.html 


Drag and drop the NetFlow Export feature on the left to the NetFlow version that first supported it on the right. 


Q103. Which two message types allow PIM snooping to forward multicast traffic? (Choose two.) 

A. hello messages 

B. leave messages 

C. membership query messages 

D. bidirectional PIM DF election messages 

Answer: A,D 

Q104. Which statement describes what it means if a router has an OSPF priority set to 0? 

A. A router with the OSPF priority set to 0 is one that can participate in the election of a DR. It has the highest priority. 

B. A router with the OSPF priority set to 0 is one that cannot participate in the election of a DR, but it can become a BDR 

C. A router with the OSPF priority set to 0 is one that cannot participate in the election of a DR. It can become neither a DR nor a BDR. 

D. A router with the OSPF priority set to 0 is one that cannot participate in the election of a BDR, but it can become a DR 


Q105. Refer to the exhibit. 

All switches are Cisco switches. Assume that Cisco Discovery Protocol is enabled only on switches A and C. 

Which information is returned when you issue the command show cdp neighbors on switch C? 

A. a limited amount of information about switch B 

B. no neighbor details will be returned 

C. neighbor details for switch B 

D. neighbor details for switch A 

E. neighbor details for switch C 



CDP is used to discover information on directly connected neighbors only, so in this case SwitchC would only be able to obtain CDP information from SwitchB. However, since SwitchB is not running CDP then no neighbor information will be seen on SwitchC. Same goes for Switch A also in this topology. 

Q106. Which option is the default maximum age of the MAC address table? 

A. 300 seconds 

B. 500 seconds 

C. 1200 seconds 

D. 3600 seconds 



To configure the maximum aging time for entries in the Layer 2 table, use the mac-address-table aging-time command in global configuration mode. 

Syntax Description 


MAC address table entry maximum age. Valid values are 0, and from 5 to 1000000 seconds. Aging time is counted from the last time that the switch detected the MAC address. The default value is 300 seconds. 

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios/lanswitch/command/reference/lsw_book/lsw_m1. html 

Q107. When you implement PfR, which IP SLA probe is used to determine the MOS? 

A. jitter 

B. latency 

C. packet loss 

D. throughput 


Q108. What are two advantages to using Asynchronous mode instead of Demand mode for BFD? (Choose two.) 

A. Asynchronous mode requires half as many packets as Demand mode for failure detection. 

B. Asynchronous mode can be used in place of the echo function. 

C. Asynchronous mode supports a larger number of BFD sessions. 

D. Asynchronous mode requires one fourth as many packets as Demand mode for failure detection. 

E. Asynchronous mode’s round-trip jitter is less than that of Demand mode. 

Answer: A,B 


Pure Asynchronous mode is advantageous in that it requires half as many packets to achieve a particular Detection Time as does the Echo function. It is also used when the Echo function cannot be supported for some reason. 

Reference: https://tools.ietf.org/html/rfc5880 

Q109. Which statement about MSS is true? 

A. It is negotiated between sender and receiver. 

B. It is sent in all TCP packets. 

C. It is 20 bytes lower than MTU by default. 

D. It is sent in SYN packets. 

E. It is 28 bytes lower than MTU by default. 



The maximum segment size (MSS) is a parameter of the Options field of the TCP header that specifies the largest amount of data, specified in octets, that a computer or communications device can receive in a single TCP segment. It does not count the TCP header or the IP header. The IP datagram containing a TCP segment may be self-contained within a single packet, or it may be reconstructed from several fragmented pieces; either way, the MSS limit applies to the total amount of data contained in the final, reconstructed TCP segment. The default TCP Maximum Segment Size is 536. Where a host wishes to set the maximum segment size to a value other than the default, the maximum segment size is specified as a TCP option, initially in the TCP SYN packet during the TCP handshake. The value cannot be changed after the connection is established. 

Reference: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Maximum_segment_size 

Q110. Which two values are needed to configure NTP authentication? (Choose two.) 

A. the encryption method 

B. the key number 

C. the burst mode 

D. the key string 

E. the Diffie-Hellman group 

Answer: B,D 

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