400-101 Guide

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  • Cisco
  • Exam Number/Code 400-101
  • Product Name CCIE Routing and Switching (v5.0)
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  • 911 Q&As
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Q161. An IP SLA fails to generate statistics. How can you fix the problem? 

A. Add the verify-data command to the router configuration. 

B. Reload the router configuration. 

C. Remove the ip sla schedule statement from the router configuration and re-enter it. 

D. Add the debug ip sla error command to the router configuration. 

E. Add the debug ip sla trace command to the router configuration. 

Answer:


Q162. Which three TLVs does LLDP use to discover network devices? (Choose three.) 

A. Management address 

B. Port description 

C. Network policy 

D. System name 

E. Location information 

F. Power management 

Answer: A,B,D 

Explanation: 

Basic Management TLV Set 

This set includes the following five TLVs used in LLDP: 

. Port description TLV: Provides a description of the port in an alpha-numeric format. The value equals the ifDescr object, if the LAN device supports RFC 2863. 

. System name TLV: Provides the system's assigned name in an alpha-numeric format. The value equals the sysName object, if the LAN device supports RFC 3418. 

. System description TLV: Provides a description of the network entity in an alpha-numeric format. This includes system's name and versions of hardware, operating system and networking software supported in the device. The value equals the sysDescr object, if the LAN device supports RFC 3418. 

. System capabilities TLV: Indicates the primary function(s) of the device and whether or not these functions are enabled in the device. The capabilities are indicated by two octects. Bits 0 through 7 indicate Other, Repeater, Bridge, WLAN AP, Router, Telephone, DOCSIS cable device and Station respectively. Bits 8 through 15 are reserved. 

. Management address TLV: Indicates the addresses of the local LLDP agent. Other remote managers can use this address to obtain information related to the local device. 

Reference: http://www.eetimes.com/document.asp?doc_id=1272069 


Q163. How many address families can a single OSPFv3 instance support? 

A. 1 

B. 2 

C. 5 

D. 10 

Answer:


Q164. Which three condition types can be monitored by crypto conditional debug? (Choose three.) 

A. Peer hostname 

B. SSL 

C. ISAKMP 

D. Flow ID 

E. IPsec 

F. Connection ID 

Answer: A,D,F 

Explanation: 

Supported Condition Types 

The new crypto conditional debug CLIs--debug crypto condition, debug crypto condition unmatched, and show crypto debug-condition--allow you to specify conditions (filter values) in which to generate and display debug messages related only to the specified conditions. The table below lists the supported condition types. 

Table 1 Supported Condition Types for Crypto Debug CLI 

Condition Type (Keyword) 

Description 

connid 1 

An integer between 1-32766. Relevant debug messages will be shown if the current IPSec operation uses this value as the connection ID to interface with the crypto engine. 

flowid 1 

An integer between 1-32766. Relevant debug messages will be shown if the current IPSec operation uses this value as the flow-ID to interface with the crypto engine. 

FVRF 

The name string of a virtual private network (VPN) routing and forwarding (VRF) instance. Relevant debug messages will be shown if the current IPSec operation uses this VRF instance as its front-door VRF (FVRF). 

IVRF 

The name string of a VRF instance. Relevant debug messages will be shown if the current IPSec operation uses this VRF instance as its inside VRF (IVRF). 

peer group 

A Unity group-name string. Relevant debug messages will be shown if the peer is using this group name as its identity. 

peer hostname 

A fully qualified domain name (FQDN) string. Relevant debug messages will be shown if the peer is using this string as its identity; for example, if the peer is enabling IKE Xauth with this FQDN string. 

peeripaddress 

A single IP address. Relevant debug messages will be shown if the current IPSec operation is related to the IP address of this peer. 

peer subnet 

A subnet and a subnet mask that specify a range of peer IP addresses. Relevant debug messages will be shown if the IP address of the current IPSec peer falls into the specified subnet range. 

peer username 

A username string. Relevant debug messages will be shown if the peer is using this username as its identity; for example, if the peer is enabling IKE Extended Authentication (Xauth) with this username. 

SPI 1 

A 32-bit unsigned integer. Relevant debug messages will be shown if the current IPSec operation uses this value as the SPI. 

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/sec_conn_vpnips/configuration/xe-3s/sec-sec-for-vpns-w-ipsec-xe-3s-book/sec-crypto-debug-sup.html 


Q165. How many bytes comprise the system ID within an IS-IS NET? 

A. 4 bytes 

B. 6 bytes 

C. 8 bytes 

D. 16 bytes 

E. 20 bytes 

Answer:

Explanation: 

Routers are identified with NETs of 8 to 20 bytes. ISO/IEC 10589 distinguishes only three fields in the NSAP address format: a variable-length area address beginning with a single octet, a system ID, and a 1-byte n-selector. Cisco implements a fixed length of 6 bytes for the system ID, which is like the OSPF router ID. 

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/products/ps6599/products_white_paper09186a00800a3e6f.sh tml 


Q166. Which two OSPF network types require the use of a DR and BDR? (Choose two.) 

A. non-broadcast networks 

B. point-to-point networks 

C. point-to-multipoint networks 

D. broadcast networks 

E. point-to-multipoint non-broadcast networks 

Answer: A,D 


Q167. What are two benefits of Per-Tunnel QoS for DMVPN? (Choose two.) 

A. The administrator can configure criteria that, when matched, can automatically set up QoS for each spoke as it comes online. 

B. Traffic from each spoke to the hub can be regulated individually. 

C. When traffic exceeds a configurable threshold, the spokes can automatically set up QoS with the hub. 

D. The hub can send large packets to a spoke during allotted timeframes. 

E. The hub can be regulated to prevent overloading small spokes. 

Answer: A,E 


Q168. Which circumstance can cause TCP starvation and UDP dominance to occur? 

A. Too few queues are available. 

B. UDP is comprised of smaller packets than TCP. 

C. Retransmitted TCP packets are on the network. 

D. UDP and TCP data are assigned to the same service-provider class. 

Answer:


Q169. Refer to the exhibit. 

Which two statements are true? (Choose two.) 

A. This router is not 4-byte autonomous system aware. 

B. This router is 4-byte autonomous system aware. 

C. The prefix 10.100.1.1/32 was learned through an autonomous system number with a length of 4 bytes, and this router is 4-byte autonomous system aware. 

D. The prefix 10.100.1.1/32 was learned through an autonomous system number with a length of 4 bytes, and this router is not 4-byte autonomous system aware. 

E. The prefix 10.100.1.1/32 was originated from a 4-byte autonomous system. 

Answer: A,D 

Explanation: 

Prior to January 2009, BGP autonomous system (AS) numbers that were allocated to companies were 2-octet numbers in the range from 1 to 65535 as described in RFC 4271, A Border Gateway Protocol 4 (BGP-4). Due to increased demand for AS numbers, the Internet Assigned Number Authority (IANA) started to allocate four-octet AS numbers in the range from 65536 to 4294967295. RFC 5396, Textual Representation of Autonomous System (AS) Numbers, documents three methods of representing AS numbers. Cisco has implemented the following two methods: 

. Asplain — Decimal value notation where both 2-byte and 4-byte AS numbers are represented by their decimal value. For example, 65526 is a 2-byte AS number and 234567 is a 4-byte AS number. 

. Asdot — Autonomous system dot notation where 2-byte AS numbers are represented by their decimal value and 4-byte AS numbers are represented by a dot notation. For example, 65526 is a 2-byte AS number and 1.169031 is a 4-byte AS number (this is dot notation for the 234567 decimal number). 

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/iproute_bgp/configuration/xe-3s/irg-xe-3s-book/irg-4byte-asn.html 


Q170. On which three options can Cisco PfR base its traffic routing? (Choose three.) 

A. Time of day 

B. An access list with permit or deny statements 

C. Load-balancing requirements 

D. Network performance 

E. User-defined link capacity thresholds 

F. Router IOS version 

Answer: C,D,E 

Explanation: 

Key Advantages of using PfR for Load balancing: 

. Utilization based load-balancing: PfR takes real-time link utilization into account when load balancing the links. This will ensure that a link will not go beyond a certain percentage of its maximum capacity (75% by default). 

. Application Performance based Load Balancing: PfR does not randomly forward traffic through one link or another. It takes application performance requirements into consideration and then forwards the traffic through a link which meets the performance policy requirements. PfR also load balances the link at the same time. 

. Bi-directional Solution: PfR is a bi-directional load balancing solution which influences outbound as well as in-bound traffic. 

. Consolidated Centralized View: PfR offers consolidated and centralized view of the state of all external links in the network. At any given time, the network administrator can see the current link utilization (in kbps and percentage of its capacity), maximum link threshold, and the policies applied to the links in the network. 

Reference: http://docwiki.cisco.com/wiki/PfR:Solutions:InternetOutboundLoadBalancing 


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